Whence Comes this Hypocrisy: Lord Jesus or the Translators Bringing the Story?

Discussion in Misc & Others started by mythman • Aug 14, 2014.

  1. mythman

    mythmanActive Member

    Mar 21, 2014
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    I was a 'grammar-geek,' so I don't know why I didn't ask this before: If Lord Jesus "taught us to pray" in the 'first-person plural' (indicating that the voice you lift up is to chime-in with that of ALL God's creation), why is Hes prayer in the Garden of Gethsemane in the 'first-person singular?' (indicating that the voice you lift up is to be heard distinctly from any other voice).

    Does the original Greek/Aramaic (I forget which one was used) have different words for "My" & "Our"? If not, why did the translators use 'Our' in the "Our Father" but not -have Jesus using the royal "we"?